[FRIAM] is this true?

[Nick Thompson]

Wait a minute, folks.  How could there be any change in behavior without some change in the brain?  Spell that out for me. 

Nick 

Nicholas S. Thompson
Emeritus Professor of Psychology and Biology
Clark University
http://home.earthlink.net/~nickthompson/naturaldesigns/


-----Original Message-----
From: Friam [mailto:friam-bounces at redfish.com] On Behalf Of Steven A Smith
Sent: Friday, March 08, 2019 9:09 PM
To: The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group <friam at redfish.com>
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] is this true?

Ok...  

Then I think the assertion that *either* changes the brain in any
*plastic* manner is sketchy.  I believe that plastic changes occur through changes in behaviour (i.e. habits) and/or perhaps changes in body chemistry/biome.

I don't have any evidence or references at this time.

On 3/8/19 4:14 PM, uǝlƃ ☣ wrote:
> Well, as I tried to make clear earlier, my question isn't about the changes either therapy makes to the brain so much as whether or not the changes from one therapy are _similar to_ the changes from the other therapy.  The evidence that the two therapies change the brain in the same or similar ways seems pretty sketchy to me.
>
> On 3/8/19 10:34 AM, Steven A Smith wrote:
>> I think you are asking something more sophisticated though?   If we 
>> believe that there are *some* kinds of changes to the brain (such as Dave's examples below) when we "change our minds" or "see things differently" then in fact there is a "plastic" change which persists past the direct effect of the drugs or the therapy session.
>>
>> I think you are asking *what* the specific brain changes are that 
>> might be effected through A) Therapy and B) Antidepressants/???  and C) a) supported/enhanced/accelerated by b).
>

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