[FRIAM] is this true?

[Nick Thompson]

Ok.  I should stop being snarky and try to answer my own damned question.  I think we parse things into "brain" effects and "therapy" effects depending on the lability of behavior with respect to the manipulation we are contemplating.  Let's say the symptom is Thompson's Snarkiness.  Let's say it could be cured either by a 25 cent pill or ten thousand hours of therapy.  We would call this a brain effect.  On the other hand, let's say it could be cured by a ten thousand dollar course of pills or one hour of therapy. We would call this a therapy effect.  These attributions would apply even if it could be demonstated that they all acted on precisely the same part of the brain.  

 Am I wrong about that?  

Nick 

Nicholas S. Thompson
Emeritus Professor of Psychology and Biology
Clark University
http://home.earthlink.net/~nickthompson/naturaldesigns/

-----Original Message-----
From: Friam [mailto:friam-bounces at redfish.com] On Behalf Of Steven A Smith
Sent: Wednesday, March 13, 2019 10:23 AM
To: friam at redfish.com
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] is this true?

Eric -

Thanks for adding to this conversation with plenty more grounding than I have in the details.  

Since Glen's OP referenced Ketamine which seems to be a new entry into the psychologist's pantheon (or is it more an addition to the quiver?), I wonder if you have anything to say about the specific differences between it and other on/off label drugs used for depression.

Can any parallels be drawn between those effects and the microdosing of psychedelics?  

- Steve



============================================================
FRIAM Applied Complexity Group listserv
Meets Fridays 9a-11:30 at cafe at St. John's College to unsubscribe http://redfish.com/mailman/listinfo/friam_redfish.com
archives back to 2003: http://friam.471366.n2.nabble.com/
FRIAM-COMIC http://friam-comic.blogspot.com/ by Dr. Strangelove