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It seems like such a dumb question to ask. Why should any preference have a genetic basis? How about look for a gene that encodes a preference for plush carpeting or a preference for Flamenco music? And what about those men that like short women?! Maybe
a man is kind of like a tall woman, on average? And why would anyone expect that it would be bimodal? If it were what would that tell us? One could imagine homosexuality is just one manifestation of cognitive or emotional flexibility. That by itself
would explain why it is enduring, because those properties would give a person an advantage over less flexible people. Some fraction of the people with that property have heterosexual or bisexual relationships, and they reproduce and raise children that thrive.
The rigid (heterosexual) types in comparison are prone to making the same kind of mistakes over and over and their children suffer for it.</div>
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<div id="divRplyFwdMsg" dir="ltr"><font face="Calibri, sans-serif" style="font-size:11pt" color="#000000"><b>From:</b> Friam <friam-bounces@redfish.com> on behalf of ⛧ glen <gepropella@gmail.com><br>
<b>Sent:</b> Saturday, January 8, 2022 4:13 PM<br>
<b>To:</b> FriAM <friam@redfish.com><br>
<b>Subject:</b> [FRIAM] gene complex for homosexuality</font>
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<div class="PlainText">I'm in an ongoing argument with a gay friend about how tortured Darwinian arguments are in accounting for homosexuality. He claims they're VERY torturous. I'm inclined toward the first mentioned here:
<a href="https://www.bbc.com/news/magazine-26089486">https://www.bbc.com/news/magazine-26089486</a><br>
<br>
But, were group selection and/or cultural evolution a thing, then my friend would be more right. Anyone here have a strong opinion?<br>
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-- <br>
glen ⛧<br>
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