[FRIAM] is this true?

[uǝlƃ ☣]

On 3/13/19 11:24 AM, Nick Thompson wrote:
> */Now, as Glen points out, there is no need for this to be the case.  The two modalities could work on entirely different parts of the central nervous systems, yet have pretty much the same effect for our purposes on behavior, right?. /*

I think the answer depends on whether or not the system exhibits robustness (multiple generators produce the same result).  This *is* what I want to ask.  My own belief is, yes, the organism is complex, which means it's prone to both robustness and polyphenism.  But I don't know that's the case, which is why I want to see the evidence that the organism is NOT robust and/or polyphenic as the "changes the brain in similar ways" assertion implies.

Where is the evidence that similar outcomes imply similar causes? ... the so-called inverse problem?

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