[FRIAM] square land math question

Eric Charles eric.phillip.charles at gmail.com
Thu Jul 23 14:01:11 EDT 2020


Zeno had several paradoxes, all intended to expose questionable
assumptions.

On Thu, Jul 23, 2020, 1:58 PM Frank Wimberly <wimberly3 at gmail.com> wrote:

> A lot of it has to do with using a cell phone keyboard and not wanting to
> get too technical here.  But maybe Jon is right about "the List can take
> it."
>
> I should have said that aleph(n) is the cardinality of the power set of a
> set with cardinality aleph(n-1).  That's slightly different from what I
> said before.
>
> Frank
>
> ---
> Frank C. Wimberly
> 140 Calle Ojo Feliz,
> Santa Fe, NM 87505
>
> 505 670-9918
> Santa Fe, NM
>
> On Thu, Jul 23, 2020, 11:40 AM uǝlƃ ↙↙↙ <gepropella at gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Thanks for putting in a little more effort. So, in your definitions,
>> 1/aleph0 = 1/aleph1. That's tightly analogous, if not identical, to saying
>> a point is divisible because point/2 = point. But before you claimed a
>> point is indivisible. So, if you were more clear about which authority you
>> were citing when you make your claims, we wouldn't have these discussions.
>>
>> On 7/23/20 10:35 AM, Frank Wimberly wrote:
>> > I am aware of the hierarchy of infinities.  Aleph0 is the cardinality
>> of the integers.  Aleph1 is the cardinality of the power set of the
>> integers which is the cardinality of the real numbers (that's a theorem
>> which is easy but I don't feel like typing it on a cellphone keyboard).
>> Aleph2 is the cardinality of the power set of aleph1, etc.
>> >
>> > In my definition of 1/infinity, assume infinity means aleph0.  But I
>> believe it works for any infinite number.  That last word is important.
>>
>> --
>> ↙↙↙ uǝlƃ
>>
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