[FRIAM] square land math question

Frank Wimberly wimberly3 at gmail.com
Thu Jul 23 13:57:40 EDT 2020


A lot of it has to do with using a cell phone keyboard and not wanting to
get too technical here.  But maybe Jon is right about "the List can take
it."

I should have said that aleph(n) is the cardinality of the power set of a
set with cardinality aleph(n-1).  That's slightly different from what I
said before.

Frank

---
Frank C. Wimberly
140 Calle Ojo Feliz,
Santa Fe, NM 87505

505 670-9918
Santa Fe, NM

On Thu, Jul 23, 2020, 11:40 AM uǝlƃ ↙↙↙ <gepropella at gmail.com> wrote:

> Thanks for putting in a little more effort. So, in your definitions,
> 1/aleph0 = 1/aleph1. That's tightly analogous, if not identical, to saying
> a point is divisible because point/2 = point. But before you claimed a
> point is indivisible. So, if you were more clear about which authority you
> were citing when you make your claims, we wouldn't have these discussions.
>
> On 7/23/20 10:35 AM, Frank Wimberly wrote:
> > I am aware of the hierarchy of infinities.  Aleph0 is the cardinality of
> the integers.  Aleph1 is the cardinality of the power set of the integers
> which is the cardinality of the real numbers (that's a theorem which is
> easy but I don't feel like typing it on a cellphone keyboard).  Aleph2 is
> the cardinality of the power set of aleph1, etc.
> >
> > In my definition of 1/infinity, assume infinity means aleph0.  But I
> believe it works for any infinite number.  That last word is important.
>
> --
> ↙↙↙ uǝlƃ
>
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