[FRIAM] is this true?

[Frank Wimberly]

These days it would be difficult to sort this out.  Psychiatrists who do
psychotherapy (not all) almost all use meds too.  Psychoanalysts are now
rare but they traditionally wouldn't prescribe an aspirin for a patient's
headache.

-----------------------------------
Frank Wimberly

My memoir:
https://www.amazon.com/author/frankwimberly

My scientific publications:
https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Frank_Wimberly2

Phone (505) 670-9918

On Fri, Mar 8, 2019, 4:14 PM uǝlƃ ☣ <gepropella at gmail.com> wrote:

> Well, as I tried to make clear earlier, my question isn't about the
> changes either therapy makes to the brain so much as whether or not the
> changes from one therapy are _similar to_ the changes from the other
> therapy.  The evidence that the two therapies change the brain in the same
> or similar ways seems pretty sketchy to me.
>
> On 3/8/19 10:34 AM, Steven A Smith wrote:
> > I think you are asking something more sophisticated though?   If we
> believe that there are *some* kinds of changes to the brain (such as Dave's
> examples below) when we "change our minds" or "see things differently" then
> in fact there is a "plastic" change which persists past the direct effect
> of the drugs or the therapy session.
> >
> > I think you are asking *what* the specific brain changes are that might
> be effected through A) Therapy and B) Antidepressants/???  and C) a)
> supported/enhanced/accelerated by b).
>
>
> --
> ☣ uǝlƃ
>
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